The Bible encompasses three major time periods:
- The Patriarchal age was the period during which God dealt with man through the family patriarch, or father. Miraculous manifestations (miracles) inaugurated the Patriarchal age. In fact, man himself was miraculously created (Genesis 1,2).
- The Mosaic age was introduced in a similar fashion. The ten plagues, the miracles in the wilderness, and dividing and crossing of the Red Sea were all phenomena that irresistibly attested to Divine involvement.
- Christianity also had its beginning in a climate of divine manifestation. The gospel, the church, and forgiveness of sin through Jesus' blood all began in the presence of miracles (Acts 2).
The New Testament is replete with the presence of the phenomena we refer to as miracles (Acts 2:43; 4:16; 5:12). These miracles are unmistakable and undeniable. The case of the restoration of the lame man, known to have been a cripple since birth, is a good case study (Acts 3:1-11). This man was well-established as a serious cripple (Acts 3:2,10). In verse 7, we read: "Immediately, his feet and ankle bones received strength." The healed man leaped up, stood, and walked (vs. 8). He continued walking and thereafter led a normal life (vs.8, 4:14).
The Sanhedrin, although determined to crush Christianity, could not deny this miracle. "And beholding the man which was healed standing with them (the apostles, dm), they could say nothing against it." (Acts 4:14) The historian records the dilemma in which the Sanhedrin found itself: "Saying, what shall we do to these men? For that indeed a notable miracle hath been done by them is manifest to all them that dwell in Jerusalem; and we cannot deny it." (Acts 4:16) Beloved, genuine miracles were so evident (no other explanation) that even the rank enemies of Christianity admitted their validity! But, were miracles meant to continue indefinitely, or did God intend for them to end within a timeframe of His choosing?
The purpose of miracles. It is evident that Biblical miracles played a definite role and served the purpose for which they were intended.
- First of all, New-Testament miracles confirmed the spoken word (Mark 16: 20). The apostles did not have the New Testament, as we do, to prove that their teaching was correct. Hence, they needed a means of validation. We read: "God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles and gifts of the Holy Spirit..." (Hebrews 2:4)
- Not only did the signs and wonders confirm the spoken word, but they also produced faith. When Jesus raised the dead, the people believed (John 11:45). As a result, when Sergius Paulus beheld the miracle performed by Saul, he " . . . believed, being astonished at the doctrine of the Lord." (Acts 13:12,6-12)
The duration of Bible miracles. Three descriptive words are crucial to our study of the duration of miracles:
- fail (katargeo),
- cease (pauo),
- vanish away (argethesetai).
These three words are used to describe the length of time that prophecies, tongues, and knowledge (miraculous knowledge), respectively, would be in effect. Hear Paul, "Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away." (1 Corinthians 13:8-10) When would the miraculous (the three miraculous gifts mentioned) end?
The inspired apostle Paul supplied the answer: "For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." (1 Corinthians 13:9,10) Concerned reader, "in part" (meros) means fragmentary and incomplete. The "in part" state corresponds to the state of miraculous gifts mentioned in Ephesians 4:8-12. In writing to the Ephesians, Paul mentioned five offices, or functions, that were miraculously assisted (vs. 11, cpo vs. 8). This temporary system, involving the miraculous, was for the edification and stability of the early church (Ephesians 4:12; 1 Corinthians 14:1,5,12,17,26). The corresponding text in Ephesians also stipulates a time period, "Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man..."(Ephesians 4:13)
To what do the phrases "that which is perfect" and "the unity of the faith" refer? Essentially two explanations and answers are offered.
- Jesus and His second coming.
- The completion of revelation.
Jesus and His Second Coming. If Jesus' Second Coming is meant, why didn't Paul write, "but when the Christ is come (oh Christos)"? Instead, he used the neuter gender, referring to a thing, not a person. Moreover, if he meant Jesus' Second Coming, then we are in the "in part" state. This presents a serious problem, in view of all the scriptures that emphasize the completeness of revelation and of our present system (2 Timothy 3:16,17; 2 Peter 1:3).
- Paul wrote, "And ye are complete in him..." (Colossians 2:10)
The same thing is true of 1 Corinthians 13:11-13 and of James 1:23-25. James did not say "he who shall look into the perfect law of liberty. He said "he who looks into the perfect law of liberty and continues in it."
Also, the stated purpose of Jesus' miracles was to produce faith (John 20:30,31). Why would there be a need for ongoing miracles? In addition, we have the written word, and the written word confirms itself; hence, there's no need for miracles. We test teachers by what they teach, because we have the complete revealed revelation (2 John 9-11; compare 1 John 4:1,2, 18-20).
The completion of revelation. The word "perfect" (telios) means full, complete, or mature. (In Hebrews 5:14, telios is translated "of full age.") James wrote, "But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty. . ." (James 1:25) This is the same word as is used in 1 Corinthians 13:10. See also Romans 12:2).
The idea of complete revelation is set forth in Ephesians 4:13, "Till we all come in the unity of the faith..." (Telios is also used in the expression "unto a perfect man," ibid.) During the "in part" time period, a prophet would prophesy a truth. However, it was in part and dependent on a vulnerable process (1 Corinthians 14).
With the complete revelation (the New Testament), we have the total revealed truth as a unit ("unity of the faith," John 14:26; 16:13). This, then, explains why Paul used the "perfect thing" (Nestle's Interlinear Greek English New Testament), as opposed to the "Perfect One."
There are many today who claim to have seen miracles performed, or maintain that they themselves can perform miracles. In all seriousness, are these so-called miracles of the same type as those found in the New Testament? Remember, even the enemies of Christianity could not deny the fact of the wondrous miracle in Acts 3 (4:14,16). New-Testament miracles were open and tangible, and no other explanations could be offered. They were miracles.
The miracles alleged today are often deflective. Their proponents take the authority and the validation from the scriptures and place it on what is often subjective, sensational, and manipulative (2 John 9-11). Also, we must remember, there are such things as "lying wonders." Even during New-Testament times, false religion used "miracles" to promote itself (2 Thessalonians 2:3-12).
As we have seen, God used miracles to introduce the different time periods. During the Patriarchal age, after miraculously creating man, God instituted natural laws that enable mankind to procreate.
I submit that the same thing is true of Christianity. God introduced Christianity with miracles; but today, His natural law (His word, 1 Peter 1:23) governs its procreation. No longer is it necessary to restore severed body members, turn water into wine, or raise the dead to substantiate the truth being taught. Miracles served their purpose and have long since "failed," "ceased," and "vanished away." (Luke 22:50,51; John 2:1-11; John 11:43-46; 1 Corinthians 13:8-10)
We must focus our attention on the word to "prove all things and hold fast that which is good." (1 Thessalonians 5:21) Instead of returning to the incomplete (in our case, pseudo miracles), we should take advantage of the complete, the "perfect law of liberty." (James 1:25)
Addendum 1: In all fairness, we must admit that the neuter gender is used in 1 John 1:1-3. Today's proponents of miracles contend that, in this passage, John certainly was referring to Christ. Therefore, they conclude, 1 John 1:1-3 proves "that which is perfect" in 1 Corinthians 13:10 also refers to Christ. If this is true, we are now in the "in part" state. Allow me to offer another explanation: John was not simply referring to Christ, but to Christ and to all (the gospel system, etc.) that appertained to Christ. Such constitutes the grounds for fellowship (1 John 1:3). You see, just the person of Christ is not sufficient grounds for fellowship. His teaching must also be accepted (2 John 9-11; 2 John 6). Hence, the phrase "that which" is comprehensive and is grammatically correct.
Brother Martin has conducted a good examination of the subject of current miracles. Why can't men today, who claim to have the same power the apostles had, do the same types of miracles? Why are their miracles called into question? There's a simple answer-they do not have the same power we read about in the scriptures! (KMG)