One who attends a religious service at a denominational church might see and hear what are indeed strange sounds. These sounds, according to many of our religious friends, bear witness of one's acceptance by Jesus Christ. How? By "speaking in tongues" we know God has given His divine approval of His acceptance and of our salvation. In a nutshell, we know we've been saved through a direct operation by the Holy Spirit!

Can men speak in tongues today? Absolutely! Before you think I have "changed horses in midstream," allow me to explain. Not only have I witnessed others speaking in tongues, I have done so myself -- for a short while. Brother Greer, have you been moved away from the truth by the teachings of men? What are these tongues? They are the same thing they were in the scriptures -- different languages! The "tongue-speaking" in the Bible, and that to which I have just alluded, are alike -- speaking in a foreign language. In Bible times, men spoke in languages in which they had not been born or schooled; therefore, it was miraculous. This gift was given to those in the early church to enable the rapid spread of the gospel into different lands and languages, so it could be preached to the entire world. The tongue-speaking was also a confirmation that the message was from God and needed to be heeded -- and understood by those who heard.

I deny that men today are able to speak in tongues as they did in the first century -- unless they've studied and learned the language. In that time, this was made possible by a miracle -- this does not happen today. Why? It is neither possible nor necessary. We will further explain during this discussion on tongue-speaking. We must guard against being emotionally caught up and attempting to speak in languages that cannot be understood -- by those who speak or those who hear! This is not a gift; it is not a confirmation of anything divine; no one is edified; and it does not glorify and honor God!

In my files, I have an ad, placed in a California paper, in which the advertiser promises, for $25, to teach you to speak in tongues. Tongue-speaking today is not the same as we read about in the Bible. Today, men have perverted the truth concerning tongue-speaking in order to further their own agendas. We will examine the subject by looking at the Bible to see why the gift was given, who gave it, and its purposes. Brethren, you need to be able to take your Bible and show people the error of this teaching. It becomes more popular every day, and more and more people are accepting that it must happen to confirm their salvation. Nothing could be further from the truth! No one is denying the Bible language concerning "tongue-speaking;" we deny that it continues in the same vein today. We also believe the purposes for these "tongues" no longer exist in our day and time. Please consider my thoughts carefully.

Let's define the word "tongue" as it is used in the scriptures. The Greek word for tongue is "Glossa." In every New Testament occurrence, it is used to refer to understandable human language. The term "glossolalia" is an Anglicized compound made up of two Greek words:

• "Glossa," which means tongue, and
• "lalia," which means speech.

This word (glossolalia) is used to refer to contemporary ecstatic utterances. It is the NOT the same thing as the gift of tongues spoken of in the New Testament.

Modern tongue-speaking is a psychological phenomenon during which the one speaking believes that God has taken possession of his vocal cords. "Contemporary tongue-speaking is usually found in situations during which an individual experiences greater inner tension, brought on either by an intense desire to experience the phenomenon, or by a highly emotionally charged religious service. The result is a frenzied, inarticulate, jargon, gibberish, and meaningless syllables and not understandable language." (The Holy Spirit, by Mike Hardin) Most people today believe tongue-speaking is a result of emotional exaltation and, to some extent, a loss of self-consciousness and the power of rational thought and self-control. Does this sound like what occurred during New Testament times? The one who reads carefully will find that it NEVER occurred, in this manner, in the sacred record! On the contrary, those who received the gift of tongues had complete control of themselves, and the gift, at all times. (1 Corinthians 14:26-32)

In the New Testament, the word is used:

• In a figurative sense. "Then there appeared to them divided tongues, as of fire, and one sat upon each of them." {Acts 2:3} This was a visible occurrence that had the appearance of a burning flame.
• In a rhetorical sense. "Therefore my heart rejoiced, and my tongue was glad; Moreover, my flesh shall rest in hope." {Acts 2:26} Here, the word if used to express joy.
• As a human body part. "Even so the tongue is a little member and boasts great things. See how great a forest a little fire kindles" {James 3:5} This body organ enables us so speak -- either good or bad.
• In other passages -- which we will examine -- it refers to languages that are spoken and understood. I repeat -- there is not ONE New Testament example of anyone who is able to "speak in tongues" in the way many today claim to be.

The Apostle Paul is the only New Testament writer who discussed "Speaking in tongues." And it is interesting to note that he wrote about it to only ONE church -- the church at Corinth. Paul wrote NOT ONE word on this subject to Rome, Ephesus, Colosse, Thessalonica, Philippi, or the churches of Galatia. Nor did He mention the subject in his other letters to different men -- Timothy, Titus, and Philemon.

None of the other apostles referred to "tongue-speaking" in their sacred writings. Luke mentioned it as a historical fact, but did not discuss the subject matter. If tongue-speaking was such an essential part of the Christian experience, and it continues today, why doesn't the sacred text instruct us concerning its use and purpose, and provide examples? There is plenty of teaching concerning the way to enter the church, observe Bible unity, work and worship in the church, and live morally. Doesn't it seem the least bit odd that the Bible is so silent concerning something which, according to many, MUST take place before we can be certain of our salvation.

1. Acts 2. In this text, it is clear that the word "tongues" means different languages. The apostles received the gift of tongues at the time they received the baptism of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:1-3). What did they do? "And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance." {Acts 2:4} How do we know that these tongues were different languages?

"And when this sound occurred, the multitude came together, and were confused, because everyone heard them speak in his own language. Then they were all amazed and marveled, saying to one another, "Look, are not all these who speak Galileans? And how is it that we hear, each in our own language in which we were born?" {Acts 2:6-8} According to verses 9-11, seventeen different languages were represented. The apostles received the gift, and every man heard the gospel preached in his native tongue. Why? So they could gain understanding! The gift was also given so those who heard the preaching would know that the message was divine in origin. This also was fulfillment of promises made by Jesus to His apostles prior to His death and ascension.

"But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you." {John 14:26}

"But when the Helper comes, whom I shall send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify of Me." {John 15:26}

"However, when He, the Spirit of truth, has come, He will guide you into all truth; for He will not speak on His own authority, but whatever He hears He will speak; and He will tell you things to come." {John 16:13}

We know that those who heard understand the words of Peter and the other apostles. How so? "Now when they heard this, they were cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" {Acts 2:37} Why would they ask such a question unless they understood the things spoken by Peter? How does this compare with men today who speak in gibberish that neither they nor their listeners can understand?

2. Acts 10 -- At the conversion of the first Gentile, Cornelius. Peter was sent to Cornelius to speak the words of life to him and his household. "While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God ..." {Acts 10:44-46} Later, Peter related these events to the Jewish Christians in Jerusalem?

"And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as upon us at the beginning. Then I remembered the word of the Lord, how He said, 'John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit.' If therefore God gave them the same gift as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?" {Acts 11:15-17} This miracle was the same as the one that occurred on the Day of Pentecost -- they spoke in other languages. Those who witnessed this event -- a sign to the Jews that God would now grant "repentance unto life" to the Gentiles -- understood the language. How could they who were present agree with Peter's testimony in Jerusalem if they, as well as those of Cornelius' household, had been unable to understand what He taught in Caesarea? To ask the question is to answer it!

3. Acts 19 -- the twelve men at Ephesus. "When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied. Now the men were about twelve in all." {Acts 19:5-7} Nothing in this text leads us to believe it to be different from the two previous occurrences we've already studied. Unless the context demands a different definition, a word used in one text has the same meaning when it is used in another text, especially if previous passages also use it in the same way. A careful study of the Greek language shows that the word tongues, as used in all three accounts, is exactly the same.

4. 1 Corinthians 12-14 -- the "spiritual gifts." What are the "tongues" under discussion in this context? Again, we find them to be distinctive languages -- not gibberish and confused jargon that offers no information to the hearer. Today, we hear people use unintelligible words that no one understands -- but, they tell us, God understands. We will discuss that point later.

"Therefore, if I do not know the meaning of the language, I shall be a foreigner to him who speaks, and he who speaks will be a foreigner to me." {1 Corinthians 14:11} A barbarian at Corinth would have been unacquainted with the Greek culture and the language.

"Therefore let him who speaks in a tongue pray that he may interpret." {1 Corinthians 14:13} The word "interpret" also means, "translate." If a person uses this gift, those who hear the words (tongues) being spoken must be able to understand them.

"In the law it is written: with men of other tongues and other lips I will speak to this people; And yet, for all of that, they will not hear Me." {1 Corinthians 14:21} Paul quoted from Isaiah 28:11. In the context of Isaiah 28, God is going to judge His people for their failure to listen to His word. Part of that judgment would include the Assyrians, speaking in the streets of Jerusalem, a language foreign to the Holy City. In both instances, the word means languages. If two different things were being considered, there would have been no reason to quote the passage?

"Do all have gifts of healings? Do all speak with tongues? Do all interpret? But earnestly desire the best gifts. And yet I show you a more excellent way." {1 Corinthians 12:30,31} This appears to answer, once and for all, the question concerning tongue speaking and whether it was to be universal -- for ALL believers.

"Even things without life, whether flute or harp, when they make a sound, unless they make a distinction in the sounds, how will it be known what is piped or played? For if the trumpet makes an uncertain sound, who will prepare for battle? So likewise you, unless you utter by the tongue words easy to understand, how will it be known what is spoken? For you will be speaking into the air. There are, it may be, so many kinds of languages in the world, and none of them is without significance." {1 Corinthians 14:7-10} Unless a language was understandable, it was of no benefit to God, the brethren, or the unbeliever.

"I thank my God I speak with tongues more than you all; yet in the church I would rather speak five words with my understanding, that I may teach others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue." {1 Corinthians 14:18,19} In these passages, Paul clearly shows that language not understood by the listener, is of no value to anyone. A close examination shows that verses 26-33 clearly forbid speaking in "tongues" if there is not an interpreter.

In the early church, tongues served two purposes -- to persuade unbelievers to accept the gospel of Christ, and to edify the church. Never, was this gift intended to promote self-glorification among those who received the gift. Under the Holy Spirit's direction, those who had the gift spoke understandable human languages, for the benefit of both believers and unbelievers, every time, without exception. The gift of tongues was one of the spiritual gifts used to confirm the faithfulness of God's word. If this gift were merely the ecstatic utterances practiced by the pagan cults of that day, how could it have been considered a confirming sign? In the world of pagan religion, this type of "gibberish" was commonplace. In the New Testament, speaking in tongues was not all like the so-called "tongue speaking" of our day, or of that during Bible times.

The Holy Spirit bestowed this gift on the recipients. On two different occasions, both in combination with Holy-Spirit baptism -- immersion in His power -- He enabled people to speak in tongues (languages). Prior to His ascension, Jesus gave His disciples special instructions: "And being assembled together with them, He commanded them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the Promise of the Father, "which," He said, "you have heard from Me; for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now." {Acts 1:4,5} On Pentecost, Peter told his audience (Acts 2:16-21) that the Holy Spirit baptism they witnessed was the actual fulfillment of the prophecy spoken by the prophet Joel (Joel 2:28-32). The second occurrence signaled to the Jewish Christians (who hated the Gentiles) God's readiness to accept Gentiles into the Kingdom. These Gentiles were immersed in "the same manner as in the beginning."

Elsewhere in the New Testament, the gift was given by the "laying on of the apostles hands. "Now when the apostles who were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them, who, when they had come down, prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit. For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. Then they laid hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit." {Acts 8:14-17} After converting some of them to Christ, Philip remained in Samaria, performing miracles. Why didn't he just lay hands on the people? He had received the "gift" by the laying on of the apostles' hands (Acts 6). Yet, he was unable to pass it on to other believers. The same can be seen in Acts 19:6. When the last apostle died, man's ability to receive miraculous gifts of the Spirit (including tongue speaking) died with that apostle!

The gift of "speaking in tongues" was God's way of revealing and confirming His Divine Will. God did promise this gift to His disciples. "And these signs will follow those who believe: In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues." {Mark 16:17} The "tongue speaking" would carry the gospel into foreign lands and confirm that its message was heaven sent! A close study of 1 Corinthians 14 reveals some important facts:

1. 14:1-5 -- Prophecy is a better gift than tongues.
2. 14:6-11 -- Tongues do not make uncertain sounds.
3. 14:12-19 -- There must be provision for the hearer's understanding.
4. 14:20-25 -- These passages clearly reject tongue speaking as we know it today.
5. 14:26-35 -- All things must be done for edification.
6. 14:36-40 -- All things must be done "decently and in order."

The means of, and the need for, giving the gift of tongues no longer exists. The "tongue speaking" of our day has not one thing in common with the "tongue speaking" in the Bible." What say ye?